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datagod
Starting Member
37 Posts |
Posted - 2006-05-12 : 13:54:14
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| I am having difficulty understanding the following problem:A user account has execute permission on stored procedure "ap_Proc" in database A. "ap_Proc" executes a select statement against a view "vTheView" in database B."vTheView" in turn contains a join back to table "MyTable" in database A, which the user account has NOT been granted any access to.The stored proc fails, reporting that the user does not have permission to access the MyTable table.Now if the stored procedure had the select against "MyTable", everything would have worked fine.Why does this problem happen? I don't want to grant select access to the "MyTable".How can I still use this view?Thanks for the help. |
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efelito
Constraint Violating Yak Guru
478 Posts |
Posted - 2006-05-12 : 14:16:22
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| I haven't had a chance to try this senario out, but just out of curiosity, is cross database ownership chanining enabled?Jeff Banschbach, MCDBA |
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datagod
Starting Member
37 Posts |
Posted - 2006-05-12 : 14:33:34
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| No it is not, and I believe that might be the problem. I just found an knowledge base article:810474 that summed up what I am seeing. |
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datagod
Starting Member
37 Posts |
Posted - 2006-05-15 : 11:25:33
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| Even after setting up cross database ownership for the two databases in question, I was still getting the errors.Then I checked who actually owned the databases. It wa not SA as I had assumed, it was two previous DBA's. Changed ownership to SA, problem solved.I hope this saves somebody out there some frustration... |
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